Ecrit le 03 nov. 2009 10:25
adameteve a écrit :
Ma question est sérieuse et précise : pourquoi la TMN, malgré l'absence de l'article définit devant "theu" dans le texte grec original, traduit-elle le mot "theu" en "Dieu" au lieu de "dieu" suivant la règle grammaticale citée dans la TG d'avril 2009 ?
C'est juste une question... rien de grave... pas de mauvaise intention de ma part... une simple interrogation. :wink:
Ouf... j'y suis arrivé.
Merci d'avance pour vos réponses nombreuses (y)
Vous préférez les règles de grammaire alambiquées de Frederic Franz OU vous ralliez aux textes mêmes qui sont antérieurs à la création de la Watchtower ???
Vous préférez les interprétations des Témoins de Jéhovah utilisant des sources d'autorité comme Julius Mantey à ce sujet lorsque ce dernier considère que ses propos ont été détourné du sens original ?
Je ne sais pas si vous lisez l'anglais, mais cet extrait n'a jamais été contesté par Medico & Co (au fait, salut les gars !!!)
We should also note that the Jehovah’s Witnesses Kingdom Interlinear (p. 1158-1159) utilizes both Julius Mantey’s Manual Grammer and A. T. Robertson’s Grammar in defense of their John 1:1 translation. However, Mantey observes:
Since my name is used and our Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament is quoted on page 744 to seek to justify their translation, I am making this statement… of all the scholars in the world, as far as we know none have translated this verse as Jehovah’s Witnesses have done. If the Greek article occurred with both Word and God in John 1:1, the implication would be that they are one and the same person, absolutely identical. But John affirmed that "the Word was with (the) God" (the definite article preceding each noun), and in so writing, he indicated his belief that they are distinct and separate personalities. Then John next stated that the Word was God, i.e., of the same family or essence that characterizes the Creator. Or, in other words, that both are of the same nature, and that nature is the highest in existence, namely divine…. The apostle John, in the context of the introduction to his Gospel, is pulling all the stops out of language to portray not only the deity of Christ, but also his equality with the Father. He states that the Word was in the beginning, that He was with God, that He was God and that all creation came into existence through him and that not even one thing exists that was not created by Christ. What else could be said that John did not say? 2
As for Dr. Robertson, they misstate his own position by selectively quoting him. As they observe, Robertson does say that, "the absence of the article here is on purpose." But Jehovah’s Witnesses do not explain why he says this. He does so to indicate that to include the article "would have been Sabellianism."3 In his Word Pictures, Robertson provides a succinct analysis:
By exact and careful language John denied Sabellianism by not saying ho theos enho logos (The God was the Word). That would mean that all of God was expressed in ho logos (the Word) and the terms would be interchangeable, each having the article. The subject is made plain by the article (ho logos) and the predicate without it (theos) just as in John 4:24 pneuma ho theos can only mean "God is spirit," not "spirit is God." So in I John 4:16 ho theos agape estin can only mean "God is love," not "love is God" as a so-called Christian scientist would confusedly say. For the article with the predicate see Robertson, Grammar, pp. 767f. So in John 1:14 ho Logos sarx egeneto, "the Word became flesh," not "the flesh became Word."4
The Watchtower Society appendix defending the "a god" rendering (Kingdom Interlinear, p. 1158-1160) again appears scholarly, but is not. For example, they misquote Dana and Mantey’s Grammar.5 In a letter to the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society dated July 11, 1974, Mantey even demanded a public apology for these repeated misquotings—as well as requested their discontinuance of the use of his grammar: After citing numerous examples of mistranslations, Mantey writes:
In view of the preceding facts, especially because you have been quoting me out of context, I herewith request you not to quote the Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament again, which you have been doing for 24 years. Also that you not quote it or me in any of your publications from this time on.
Also that you publicly and immediately apologize in the Watchtower magazine, since my words had no relevance to the absence of the article before theos in John 1:1…. On the page before the Preface in the grammar are these words: "All rights reserved—no part of this book may be reproduced in any form without permission in writing from the publisher." If you have such permission, please send me a photocopy of it. If you do not heed these requests you will suffer the consequences.
Julius R. Mantey6